Richard
Super Member
- Joined
- Apr 6, 2000
- Messages
- 5,044
- Location
- Knoxville, TN
- Tractor
- International 1066 Full sized JCB Loader/Backhoe and a John Deere 430 to mow with
I'm asking for "a friend" (smile)
Scenario, numbers are made up because their accuracy doesn't matter, just the process.
If I have say, $100K in a Roth IRA and I'm 65 years old. I can (since it's been held for well over 5-years) I can take any amount out and it's tax free. I rather keep funds in there 'forever' and use that bucket of assets to create some (tax free) cash flow and just take the earnings out.
I just converted $50K from traditional 401K to the Roth side of my same 401K.... now I owe taxes AND now this new money has to age 5 years before it (the earnings) would be tax free to me.
Presuming I'm on base here.....
Now, I retire. I move all converted Roth 401K funds into the Roth IRA. Now I have say, $150K sitting in the Roth IRA. $100K is aged and tax free. $50K is converted and NOT yet 5-years old. I buy dividend paying stocks. I start to write covered calls against them to enhance the cash flow from the dividends. Now (on my $100K) I can pull the Call premiums out, dividends out and all that is going to be tax free. If I have the converted $50K inside this same account, repeat with these funds..... it's not aged 5-years yet. My understanding is when doing distributions, PRINCIPAL is considered to come out first and THEN last, the earnings.
Here's the crux of my question:
Forget the $100K, it's all tax free.
If I write some Covered Calls against the stocks.... I'm going to create some income. Let's just call it $500 for easy numbers.
I'm scratching my head thinking, if PRINCIPAL comes out first, and THEN earnings..... then I might be able to take $500 (of the now balance of $50,500) and it's going to be treated as a distribution of my PRINCIPAL, not necessarily my earnings. Therefore, the principal amount would be tax free while the earnings are still baking in the oven.
Since money is fungible, that would imply I could create some cash flow from the $50K (which hasn't yet aged 5-years BUT I'm 65) and I can pull the PRINCIPAL of $500 out and let the $500 from the Call premiums and dividends "replace" the principal inside the account. So ostensibly, I COULD write covered calls on the $50K portion of the account and extract the amount of the earnings, but it would be calculated as a distribution of principal, therefore, tax free.
Literally, this just hit me about 3 minutes before typing this post as I rushed here to ask. I'm scratching my head thinking well yeah, it makes sense..... THEREFORE, if it makes sense, I have to be missing something. I'm thinking there has to be some snake in the grass that I'm not thinking about.
Thoughts??
"My Friend", thanks you in advance!

Scenario, numbers are made up because their accuracy doesn't matter, just the process.
If I have say, $100K in a Roth IRA and I'm 65 years old. I can (since it's been held for well over 5-years) I can take any amount out and it's tax free. I rather keep funds in there 'forever' and use that bucket of assets to create some (tax free) cash flow and just take the earnings out.
I just converted $50K from traditional 401K to the Roth side of my same 401K.... now I owe taxes AND now this new money has to age 5 years before it (the earnings) would be tax free to me.
Presuming I'm on base here.....
Now, I retire. I move all converted Roth 401K funds into the Roth IRA. Now I have say, $150K sitting in the Roth IRA. $100K is aged and tax free. $50K is converted and NOT yet 5-years old. I buy dividend paying stocks. I start to write covered calls against them to enhance the cash flow from the dividends. Now (on my $100K) I can pull the Call premiums out, dividends out and all that is going to be tax free. If I have the converted $50K inside this same account, repeat with these funds..... it's not aged 5-years yet. My understanding is when doing distributions, PRINCIPAL is considered to come out first and THEN last, the earnings.
Here's the crux of my question:
Forget the $100K, it's all tax free.
If I write some Covered Calls against the stocks.... I'm going to create some income. Let's just call it $500 for easy numbers.
I'm scratching my head thinking, if PRINCIPAL comes out first, and THEN earnings..... then I might be able to take $500 (of the now balance of $50,500) and it's going to be treated as a distribution of my PRINCIPAL, not necessarily my earnings. Therefore, the principal amount would be tax free while the earnings are still baking in the oven.
Since money is fungible, that would imply I could create some cash flow from the $50K (which hasn't yet aged 5-years BUT I'm 65) and I can pull the PRINCIPAL of $500 out and let the $500 from the Call premiums and dividends "replace" the principal inside the account. So ostensibly, I COULD write covered calls on the $50K portion of the account and extract the amount of the earnings, but it would be calculated as a distribution of principal, therefore, tax free.
Literally, this just hit me about 3 minutes before typing this post as I rushed here to ask. I'm scratching my head thinking well yeah, it makes sense..... THEREFORE, if it makes sense, I have to be missing something. I'm thinking there has to be some snake in the grass that I'm not thinking about.
Thoughts??
"My Friend", thanks you in advance!