VroomVroom
Platinum Member
- Joined
- Apr 30, 2010
- Messages
- 945
- Location
- Newfoundland
- Tractor
- Mahindra 2816 HST, Super M farmall, J5 bombardier, 230 timber jack skidder
I know this is not the spot for talking about estates. Although being as it used to be a farm and it means alot to me and people here can be informative i thought I would ask.
Basically, there are more twists then I may put here but the story goes as follows
A father and his son purchased 48 acres in 1911 jointly. there is a deed. When the father died in 1937 without a will, I would have assumed that the land would have went to the joint owner his son. This son died in the early 1960s with a will leaving it to his 5 children.
When the father died in 1937 , his other son with the same name and even the same wifes name moved into the fathers house and lived there for a long time. next to the brother who jointly purchased it with his father. The brother with the same name later died in 1984 with no will. His wife then took the land or 1/3 of the land as matrimonial property, even though the land was never purchased by her husband. In fact, when the highway went though, the husband even sold pieces for the road to go through. The brother who jointly owned the land with the father moved to california and his kids as well. How can the women claim 1/3 of the 48 acres if her husband never purchase it anyway? Her husband has the same name and wifes name as the father, however, the son was born in 1899 only 12 years before the father and older brother purchased the land in 1911.....
any thoughts?
Basically, there are more twists then I may put here but the story goes as follows
A father and his son purchased 48 acres in 1911 jointly. there is a deed. When the father died in 1937 without a will, I would have assumed that the land would have went to the joint owner his son. This son died in the early 1960s with a will leaving it to his 5 children.
When the father died in 1937 , his other son with the same name and even the same wifes name moved into the fathers house and lived there for a long time. next to the brother who jointly purchased it with his father. The brother with the same name later died in 1984 with no will. His wife then took the land or 1/3 of the land as matrimonial property, even though the land was never purchased by her husband. In fact, when the highway went though, the husband even sold pieces for the road to go through. The brother who jointly owned the land with the father moved to california and his kids as well. How can the women claim 1/3 of the 48 acres if her husband never purchase it anyway? Her husband has the same name and wifes name as the father, however, the son was born in 1899 only 12 years before the father and older brother purchased the land in 1911.....
any thoughts?